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jack kincaid
#1 Posted : 9/7/2010 4:30:28 PM(UTC)
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Here you can discuss the following hand.
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DNtony
#2 Posted : 9/7/2010 5:50:06 PM(UTC)
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Sure helps when you can flop quads every second hand i guess=)
karpov42
#3 Posted : 9/7/2010 8:20:31 PM(UTC)
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:)
Had 88 vs 44 on a board like that once......
jack kincaid
#4 Posted : 9/7/2010 8:31:04 PM(UTC)
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anyone knows the odds of flopping quads twice in one sng btw?
Joobs
#5 Posted : 9/7/2010 11:29:29 PM(UTC)
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WARNING: This contains maths!!

The odds of flopping quads with a PP are about 407 to 1 or 1/408, which we'll call 'p'. The odds of flopping it twice in a single SnG obviously depends on the number of hands that take place, which we'll call 'n'.

If you're after the odds for exactly twice the formula is:

(p^2) *[ (1-p)^n-2 ] * n! / [ 2! * (n-2)! ]

Although this assumes that you have a PP every hand. The probability of being dealt a pocket pair is 16 to 1 or 1/17 and the chance of flopping quads with a non-PP hand is 9799 to 1 or 1/9800. So the overall chance of flopping quads in any one hand is:

(1/17) * (1/408) + (16/17) * (1/9800) = 1/4613 roughly, which we'll redefine as 'p'.

So using the previous formula, assuming a nice round number of hands in the SnG, say 100. The odds of flopping quads exactly twice in a SnG would be approximately 1 in 3584.

If you wanted to know the probability for flopping quads twice or more in a sample you would have to subtract the probability of it happening exactly once and not at all from 1, adjusting the formula in the appropriate manner. I.e.

1 - (p^1) *[ (1-p)^n-1 ] * n! / [ 1! * (n-1)! ] - (p^0) *[ (1-p)^n ] * n! / [ 0! * (n)! ]
karpov42
#7 Posted : 9/7/2010 11:37:27 PM(UTC)
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Hm, the p^2 looks to me like you are calculating the odds for flopping quads twice in two consecutive hands.
I might be wrong though. ;)
Joobs
#8 Posted : 9/8/2010 12:05:46 AM(UTC)
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That would be the cse without the factorial part of the formula at the end. Without the factorial part it would be calculating the odds of flopping quads in hands 1 and 2, and not flopping them in the subsequent ones. It basically takes into account all the possible combinations of hands which either flop or don't flop quads.
kbking
#9 Posted : 9/8/2010 8:20:51 AM(UTC)
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i once had quad 9's twice in the same stt, quad Q's in the space of 3 hands on a cash table and played an stt once where i had every pocket pair except 66. the only pairs i lost with were the KK &44.
redhotpoker
#6 Posted : 9/8/2010 1:22:31 PM(UTC)
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Joobs wrote:
WARNING: This contains maths!!

The odds of flopping quads with a PP are about 407 to 1 or 1/408, which we'll call 'p'. The odds of flopping it twice in a single SnG obviously depends on the number of hands that take place, which we'll call 'n'.

If you're after the odds for exactly twice the formula is:

(p^2) *[ (1-p)^n-2 ] * n! / [ 2! * (n-2)! ]

Although this assumes that you have a PP every hand. The probability of being dealt a pocket pair is 16 to 1 or 1/17 and the chance of flopping quads with a non-PP hand is 9799 to 1 or 1/9800. So the overall chance of flopping quads in any one hand is:

(1/17) * (1/408) + (16/17) * (1/9800) = 1/4613 roughly, which we'll redefine as 'p'.

So using the previous formula, assuming a nice round number of hands in the SnG, say 100. The odds of flopping quads exactly twice in a SnG would be approximately 1 in 3584.

If you wanted to know the probability for flopping quads twice or more in a sample you would have to subtract the probability of it happening exactly once and not at all from 1, adjusting the formula in the appropriate manner. I.e.

1 - (p^1) *[ (1-p)^n-1 ] * n! / [ 1! * (n-1)! ] - (p^0) *[ (1-p)^n ] * n! / [ 0! * (n)! ]


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